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Second Night: Nichol's First Negative PDF Print E-mail
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Mr. Moderators, Worthy Opponent, Ladies and Gentlemen:

It affords me great pleasure to reply to the speech of my friend, and to try to assist you in understanding the plain and simple truth as presented in the Bible. He is affirming that “The Scriptures teach that all for whom Christ died will be saved, or receive remission of sins without the preached or written word, or any condition on their part.”

I showed last night that one could be lost for whom Christ died. “Destroy not him with thy meat, for whom Christ died.” (Rom. 14:15.) According to my opponent, that is impossible!—He says, “All for whom Christ died will be saved,” and that without the word, “or any condition on their part.” I contend that Christ died for all men, for all sinners alike, and that he offers them salvation in the gospel of Christ, upon terms which he himself (as mediator) has stipulated.

I now answer his questions, given me in writing last night:

1. “Does the term ‘sheep’ and ‘goats’ in Matt. 25:33, embrace all the race of Adam?” It embraces all the lost and saved. Jesus said the ‘sheep’ had “DONE” good, and were not people who had done nothing. (Verses 35-40.) The ‘goats,’ he said, “DID IT NOT.” Jesus was not there addressing little innocent babies.

2. “Does the term ‘sheep’ embrace all who will inherit the kingdom at the second coming of Christ?” It includes all such as had done good—”Done it unto one of the least of these my brethren.” (v. 40.) They make up the ‘sheep.’

3. “Does the term ‘sheep’ embrace only those who obey the gospel? It embraces only such as “HEAR” and “FOLLOW” Christ. He said, “My sheep HEAR MY VOICE, and I know them, AND THEY FOLLOW ME.” (Jn. 10:27.) He was not addressing irresponsible infants. Children are not lost; they need no remission of sins—they are safe already.

4. “Is prayer heard of God when not offered by faith?” Not if not offered by faith IN GOD. Now, back there when the gospel was first being revealed, He heard Cornelius. But he believed IN GOD, and needed faith in Christ to be saved. But my opponent denies that one must have any faith to be saved.

He challenged me last night to show where WATER BAPTISM is said to be “into Christ.” Mr. Holder has a good forgetter: he not only forgets my arguments, but his own writings also. I hold in my hand his little booklet called “Unsound Positions Of . . .” (what he vulgarly called) “Campbellism.” On page 50, Mr. Holder says, “Those who are baptized into Christ should put on Christ in the picture or likeness of his death, burial and resurrection, by being baptized in water, Gal. 3:26-27.” (End of quotation.) Here he gives “Gal. 3:26-27” as “WATER BAPTISM,” which, according to these verses, puts us “INTO CHRIST;’’ and Mr. Holder says, “baptized in water, Gal. 3:26-27.” He forgets his own booklet, as he does my speeches!

1 Cor. 12:13, “By one Spirit are we all baptized into one body.” I showed last night that “by one Spirit” means by his direction, instruction, and leadership. And I proved it by many Scriptures; but my opponent has paid no attention to them. He let these arguments stand, to go down in the book that is to be published, with no reply from him whatsoever.

When I played his speeches back, I think I discovered that I had misunderstood his position. Instead of contending that holy Ghost baptism puts one into the one body, if I understand him now, he has taken the position that one is baptized “into Christ” by sonic sort of a mysterious baptism, in Christ as the element. I want to ask him now if that is his position? (The speaker had lost sight of Mr. Holder in the crowd about the table.) Where is Mr. Holder? I see him now. Is that your position? Will you nod for me?

(Holder did not nod.)

Nichols: Oh, he is afraid to say; he dodges. An honest teacher of the word wants to give light and aid in the study of any Bible subject. My friend is dodging; he wants to hide his position. But I will bring him out—Where he leads me, I will follow!”

He is now saying one is baptized IN CHRIST as the element. But the Bible says the baptism that puts us “into” Christ has a RESURRECTION in it, “like as Christ was raised up from the dead.” (Rom. 6:3-4.) We were raised out of that in which we were “buried;” and if we were buried in Christ as an “element,” then we were raised out of Christ— no longer in Christ after baptism! No man is in Christ, then, except while being baptized! Paul said, “Buried with Him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen.” (Col. 2:12.) “Like as Christ was raised.” (Rom. 6:4.) One is not baptized both INTO, and OUT OF, Christ like that—with Christ as the element. We are not baptized “IN” one body, but “INTO ONE BODY.” (1 Cor. 12:13.) We are not baptized “IN” Christ, but “INTO Jesus Christ.” (Rom. 6:3-4.) The baptism—both the burial and resurrection—is “INTO” Christ. A couple may be married “IN” the house, but it is “INTO” wedlock. They were not married “INTO” the house, though the wedding took place “IN” the house. Baptism is not “INTO” the element— water; one is already “IN” the water before the act of baptism is performed “INTO” Christ. The marriage ceremony is not “INTO” the house; they were already “IN” the house—but it is “INTO” the married life. We are not baptized “IN” Christ, but “INTO JESUS CHRIST” (Rom. 6:3-4) as a result of it.

He took up the word “world” last night, and said Webster illustrates its meaning by speaking of “the world before the flood.” Well, that “world” included all the wicked, did it not? Peter says, “The world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished.” (2 Pet. 3:6.) Does my opponent think that was just a little handful of the wicked—just the ‘elect’—that perished back there? ‘Elect’ drowned in the flood? Why, his position is that the ‘elect’ were in the ark! Furthermore, were there any ‘non-elect’ babies drowned in the flood? He will get to the babies before the debate is over. So, I will just ask him now: Were there any ‘non-elect’ babies at the time of the flood? If so, did any of them die in infancy? If so, did they go to hell? If he says there were ‘non-elect’ infants drowned then, and they went to heaven, then he has some of the ‘non-elect’ up in heaven! But if all the infants back there were of the ‘elect,’ why did God destroy them? Why destroy the world to purge it? If he had just let the babies get grown, he would have had a good world—a world full of the ‘elect.’

Jn. 3:16, “For God so loved the WORLD, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.” My friend asked, “What ‘world’?” “The bread that I will give is my flesh, which I Will give FOR THE LIFE OF THE WORLD.” (Jn. 6:51.) My friend says, “What ‘world’?” “He is the propitiation for our sins; and NOT FOR OURS ONLY, but ALSO for the sins of the WHOLE WORLD.” (1 Jn. 2:2.) My opponent wants to know, “What ‘world’?”

Well, I am ready to tell him: It is the ‘world’ in sin! “He is the propitiation for OUR SINS . . . also for the SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD.” (1 Jn. 2:2.) It was for all who had sins. “The WHOLE WORLD lieth in wickedness.” (1 Jn. 5:19.) So, he died for the “WHOLE WORLD,” and the “WHOLE WORLD lieth in wickedness.” Again, “God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the WORLD through him might be saved.” (Jn. 3:17.) “What ‘world’?” Well, the ‘world’ that is lost, for it says, “That the ‘world’ through him might be saved.” Not the “created world” that he found in Webster—but the lost ‘world.’ Jesus said, “I came not to judge the ‘world,’ but to save the WORLD.” (Jn. 12:47.) ‘‘What ‘world’?” It says it is the ‘world’ that is to later be judged. “I came not to JUDGE THE WORLD, but to SAVE THE WORLD,” thus to save the ‘world’ that is to be judged later. And that is all the sinful race, of course. Again, “What ‘world’?” Why, the ‘world’ without life: “The bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the LIFE OF THE WORLD.” (Jn. 6:51.) The ‘world’ that is spiritually dead, and not all “created things.”

‘‘What world?” If it means the ‘elect’ only, then: “he is the propitiation for our sins”—Christians’ sins. (my opponent emphasized the “We,” “us,” etc., in Rom. 5:8-10, and thought that ‘‘we” alone there had an atonement!) But John says, “He is the propitiation for OUR SINS: and not for OURS ONLY, but ALSO for the sins of the WHOLE WORLD.” (1 Jn. 2:2.) Mr. Holder argues that it is for Christians only—just for the ‘elect;’ but it says, “Not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.” My opponent thinks that is just the ‘elect ‘—he is contending that Christ died only for the ‘elect’ or only for ‘us’—” our sins” only. He says it was only for a favored few whom he foreordained and predestinated before the world to save without hearing the Word of God, without faith, or without any condition—even without the gospel.

But let us examine 1 Jn. 5:19 again. It says, “The whole world lieth in wickedness.’’ If “whole world’’ means only the ‘elect,’ then here we have only the ‘elect’ in wickedness! Then it would mean ‘‘The whole world lieth in wickedness’’—that is, the “WHOLE” ‘elect’ lieth in wickedness! Nobody in wickedness but the ‘elect,’ according to his logic!

“What world?” “God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.’’ (Jn. 3:16.) If “WORLD’’ here means only the ‘elect,’ then it means God gave his Son for the ‘elect,’ that ‘‘whosoever” (of them, the ‘elect’) would believe should not perish; the rest would perish, hence some of the ‘elect’ be lost, according to that idea! So, it means the “whole world”—all needing a Saviour.

Again, ‘‘God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.” (Jn. 3:17.) His idea is, that God sent not his Son “into the world”—among the elect —“to condemn the world”—the ‘elect’—but “that the world”—the ‘elect’—” through him might be saved.” Then Jesus said, “For I came not to judge the world BUT TO SAVE THE WORLD.” (Jn. 12:47.) My friend thinks that means Christ came not to judge the ‘ELECT,’ but to save the ‘elect!’ Then again, Jesus promised the disciples to send the Spirit of truth, ‘‘whom the world cannot receive.” (Jn. 14:17.) Hence the “world”—’elect’—could not receive the Spirit, according to my friend. “What ‘world’?” “He is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the WHOLE WORLD.” (1 Jn. 2:2.) “Not for ours only”—‘elect’ only, but also for the “whole world.” Christ said of his disciples, “They are not of the world, even as I am not of the world.” (Jn. 17:16.) According to Mr. Holder, it means, “They are not of the world,” that is, the ‘elect’! The disciples were not of the ‘elect’! That is his doctrine, if “world” means the ‘elect’. Christ also said, “Even as I am not of the world.” Christ was not of the “world.” But if the word “world” means ‘elect,’ then Christ was not of the ‘elect!’

Jesus said he would give the Spirit to the disciples. “And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin.” (Jn. 16:8.) My friend thinks this means he would reprove the “world”—that is, the elect—of sin. If it does not mean the ‘elect,’ it means the whole world of mankind. If the Spirit reproves only the ‘elect,’ then ‘why do the ‘elect’ resist the Spirit? “Ye stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, ye do always resist the Holy Ghost: as your fathers did, so do ye.” (Acts 7:51.) Do the ‘elect’ resist the Spirit? Or, does he strive with the ‘non-elect’? Does the Spirit know as much about the ‘non-elect’ as my opponent? Does he know that they could never he saved? That Christ made no atonement for them?

Yes, he can do a lot of crowing, and boasting, and complaining, because I do not say what he wants me to, and all that; but he is not answering my arguments! I leave you to judge. Jesus says of the world, “The world cannot hate you; but me it hateth.” (Jn. 7:7.) If “world” means the ‘elect,’ then the ‘elect’ hated Jesus! Then Jesus said, “I have overcome the world.” (Jn. 16:33.) Does this mean he bad overcome the ‘elect?’ (His idea is absurd!) Christ said, “I pray not for the world.” (Jn. 17:9.) Does this mean he did not pray for the ‘elect?’ “. . . but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.” (Jn. 17:9.) The “world” here was those NOT given to Jesus—the lost—the world for which be died. He did not pray for the “world” (that is one crowd), but “for those whom thou hast given me.” My friend thinks Christ died for all those whom God had given him: so there is Jesus praying for the “world”—the crowd that he did not give him, according to my friend. (But he is not taking notes on these things, and he won’t remember either! He can’t meet the arguments!)

The “world” hated the Lord and his disciples. Was it the ‘elect’ hating the disciples? “If the world hate you, ye know that it hated me before it hated you.” (Jn. 15:18.) There is the “world” hating the disciples;—was it the ‘elect’ hating the disciples? Then ‘‘world” does not mean only the ‘elect’ when he died for the “world.” Again, “They are not of the world, even as I am not of the world.” (Jn. 17:16.) Here the disciples are not of the “world.” If the word “world” means the ‘elect,’ then Jesus is saying his disciples were not of the ‘elect, ‘ even as he was not of the ‘elect.’

Then, he quoted, “That we should not be condemned with the world.” (1 Cor. 11:32.) I suppose he thinks it means “condemned” with the ‘elect’! “Whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.” (Jas. 4:4.) I suppose he thinks one is an enemy of God if he is a friend to the ‘elect ‘—if ‘‘world’’ means ‘elect’.

“What ‘world’?” Since the word “world” in these passages cannot mean ‘elect’ only, then Christ died for the world of the lost. “He is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, BUT ALSO FOR THE SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD.” (1 Jn. 2:2.) We must die and meet God in judgment, and, my friends, you can’t afford to be misled. God has loved you, Christ died for you, and wants you to be saved. My friend tells you there is not a thing you can do about it, and that if you are not one of the favored few (or ‘elect’), it was all fore-ordained and decreed of God before you were ever born into the world, that you should go to hell, and there is nothing that you can do about it—and be knows this is his doctrine! You were born one of the ‘elect,’ or else one of the ‘non-elect,’ and it was already fixed before the world was—so he thinks!

I showed that some of those for whom Christ died could be destroyed—for not meeting the conditions. “Destroy not him with thy meat, for whom Christ died.” (Rom. 14:15.) “And through thy knowledge shall the weak brother perish, for whom Christ died.” (1 Cor. 8:11.) First, Christ died for this “brother.” Second, if he is an ‘elect’ brother, then he might be “destroyed” or “perish”—and the possibility of apostasy is established, Third, but if he be ‘non-elect,’ then Christ died for the ‘non-elect,’ and he could have been saved! Let him deal with this!

He said Christ was anointed for the remission of sins. I deny it, and demand the proof. Christ shed his blood for the remission of sins. (Mt. 26:28.) Not one Scripture has he quoted to prove that Christ was anointed for the remission of sins. He talks about the word “Christ” meaning “anointed” in Acts 2:38: “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ.” “Christ” here means the Son of God, the Saviour of the world, the Messiah.

He quoted from Berry. And I want to show you how he misquoted it! Berry‘s Lexicon says: “Christos, from Chiro, anointed; as A PROPER NAME, the Messiah, the Christ.” That is what Berry says. He puts “verbal adj.” in parenthesis. Berry says it means “a proper name,” and “the Messiah,” and “the Christ.” (Page 108.) I read all Berry said, except the references given after the definition.—Yes, right here; pass it on to him, I have it marked. (Nichols passes book to Mr. Holder.) That is how little you can trust him with books.

“John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.” (Mk. 1:4.) Here repentance and baptism are said to be “for the remission of sins” where the word “Christ” is not found for him to play with it, as in Acts 2:38. Neither is the word “Christ” in Lk. 3:3: “And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.”

Again, Mr. Holder says in his little booklet (page 13) that the word “Christ’’ is an ‘‘appellative” in Acts 2:38. Well, Mr. Webster says, in defining an “appellative”: “2. An appellation or title; a descriptive name.” (Unabridged Dictionary.) ‘Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.” (Acts 2:38.) The word “Christ” here is a “descriptive ‘name.” Then, the “Twentieth Century Translation” gives this: “You must repent, Peter answered, and must every one of you be baptized in Jesus Christ’s name for the forgiveness of your sins.” (Acts 2:38.) (Emphasis mine, G. N. )—My friend is not even taking references; he does not intend to reply to these things! Again: Acts 16:18, “I command thee in the name of Jesus Christ to come out of her.” If the word “Christ” here means “anointed,” then Jesus was “anointed to come out of her”—instead of the evil spirit. That is the way he deals with it in Acts 2:38, where Peter told them to repent and be baptized “in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.” That is the way he perverts Scripture!

He said “for” in Acts 2:38 is from the Greek word “eis” and is found 79 times in the New Testament meaning “in order to,” as in Acts 2:38. Well, I have shown that the word “Christ” is the descriptive name of Jesus; hence repentance and baptism are in time name of “Jesus Christ” and are “for the remission of sins.” It is repentance and baptism that are for the remission of sins. It is ridiculous for him to say Jesus was anointed for the remission of sins. If so, he was anointed back at his baptism, and that left no sins for him to shed his blood for later at the cross!

He denies that Thayer says “Christos” means “a proper noun.” I read it right, “Proper name,” not “noun.” Everyone knows that “noun” means “name” anyway, if Thayer had said “noun.’’

Heb. 2:9, “That he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.” Yes, he tasted death “for every man,” and then those who obey the gospel and follow him, he will bring as “sons” to “glory”—to heaven. Those who obey, become his children: “Behold I and the children which God hath given me.” (v. 13.) But they are not “children’’ without faith: “Ye are all the children of God BY FAITH in Christ Jesus.” (Gal. 3:26-27.)

“Repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations.” (Lk. 24:47.) But how did they preach it “in his name”? “To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.” (Acts 10:43.) Not, ‘‘whosoever doeth nothing!”

Yes, I baptize those dead to sin, and while they are dead; and they rise to walk a new life. (Rom. 6:2-4.) Does my friend bury in baptism those who are alive? Does he wait till they are alive, and “bury’’ them alive? He will get in jail if he tries that literally—burying (baptizing) those alive is out of order.

He referred to the church before Pentecost. But back there Christ said, “I will build my church.’’ (Mt. 16:18.) He thinks he had already built it.

The angel said, ‘I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people.” (Lk. 2:10.) My friend said this is about like “I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh.” (Acts 2:17.) “All flesh’’ means all nations—Jewish nation and Gentile nations—Jews and Gentiles alike. He thinks they would receive the Spirit without any condition on their part. But, “In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that Holy Spirit of promise.” (Eph. 1:13.) He wants the Spirit to come before they believe, or do anything!

Gal. 3:8. My friend says the heathen here is said to be justified by faith, “before the gospel.” Why, it does not say it! Nothing of the sort! You perverted it! “The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify (future tense) the heathen through faith, preached before—before he did it—the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.” Acts 3:25 says, “All the kindreds of the earth,” and verse 26 says God sent Jesus “to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities.” He will not save you in your iniquities.

Acts 2:40, “Save yourselves from this untoward generation.” My opponent said this did not say, “Save yourselves from hell.” Well, Peter was speaking of a whole “generation” of people. He said, “Save yourselves from this untoward generation.” Was this “untoward generation” saved, or lost? If that generation was lost, then Peter meant, “Save yourselves from their fate—punishment due them.”

The ‘sheep’ again. Isa. 53:6, “All we like sheep have gone astray.” There is no proof that the word ‘sheep’ always and in all places means saved people. The Jews were lost, “gone astray.” All of us have done the same. Paul says, “They are all gone out of the way.” (Rom. 3:12.)

Heb. 9:12, “Having obtained eternal redemption for us.” Yes, but WE MUST OBTAIN IT FROM HIM. I have proved that Christ died for the sins of the “WHOLE WORLD,” and we must get into Christ to obtain redemption from him. (He is not answering my arguments.) Col. 1:14, “In whom we have redemption.” We must get into him, where it is. “Baptized into Jesus Christ”—this makes it conditional. He has it up there on his chart, “Created in Christ Jesus.” (Eph. 2:10.) But we are baptized into Christ,”—then created in him, made new creatures. “If any man be in Christ, he is a new creature.” (2 Cor. 5:17.)

Rev. 5:9, “Redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation.” That is the children of God up in heaven saying that; and remember: “He gave himself a ransom for all.” (1 Tim. 2:6). My friend says, “According to Nichols, Jesus did as much on the cross for the damned in hell as he did for the saved in heaven.” Right that time!

He says our faith is not in God, but in “faith, repentance, confession, and baptism,” etc. Not true! It is our faith in the Lord and his promise that causes us to “Repent and be baptized . . . for the remission of sins.” (Acts 2:38.) But my friend denies that you must have any trust in the Lord. According to my friend, you are saved while trusting in the devil and in the flesh! You do not have to trust the Lord, nor even want to be saved, according to him.

I Jn. 4:5, “The world heareth them.” Yes, but “them” who? Verse 1 says, “Many false prophets arc gone out into the world.” “The world heareth them.” They claimed to be inspired to be prophets of God. And John said the test was, if they were “of God”—sent and inspired of God—they would hear the apostles; otherwise, they were false teachers.

Rom. 5:1-2, “Justified by faith,” and “have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.” He wants to know if alien sinners stand in “grace,” “rejoice” in hope, etc.? No, but by the time the alien sinner is “justified by faith,” and has “access by faith into this grace “—be is then saved, and “stands in grace” and “rejoices in hope” as a Christian! But, he was “justified BY faith”—not without it, Sir!

He asserted that no man “out of Christ”—unsaved man— has faith. Oh, yes. “As he spake these words, many believed on him. Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on him, if ye continue in my word, then are ye my disciples indeed; and ye shall know the truth and the truth shall make you free.” (Jn. 8:30-32.) This insulted those believers, and Jesus said, “Ye are of your father, the devil.” (Verse 44.) “They believed on him” (Verses 30-32), but were still “children of the devil.” (Verse 44.) They had nothing but faith—would not obey, and had not done what the Lord says do.

Moderator: “Time.”

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